Study with an SPT

Scapular winging could possibly indicate an injury to which nerve?

Adson’s Test and Roos Test are used to screen for:

Which of the following is a glenoid rim fracture, usually due to a subluxation or partial dislocation?

Your patient has come into the clinic with a sudden onset of severe neck pain. You suspect that the patient has cervical arterial dysfunction because the patient also reports:

Your patient has weak wrist flexion, diminished triceps reflex, and decreased sensation of the middle finger. Which nerve is the most likely influencing this presentation?

You suspect that your patient has sustained a disc herniation at the L4/5 segment. What exam finding would you expect?

Your patient has C7 radiculopathy. What stage of condition would you prescribe nerve tensioners as an intervention?

Which of the following exercises would be the LEAST effective to prescribe to your patient with a lumbar disc herniation?

Your patient experiences pain relief with the Sharp Purser Test. What should you do next?

What occurs in the late phase of TMJ opening?

Which condition occurs due to insufficient mineralization of the bone matrix, causing the bone to soften?

If the pt has limited R cervical SB, rot, and ext, what mob would improve her ROM?

Performing an anterior glide of the proximal row of carpals on the radius would improve:

What muscles are most involved in DeQuervains Tenosynovitis?

Which of the following is the best test to perform in order to rule in tarsal tunnel syndrome?

All of the following muscle tendons insert onto the medial epicondyle via the common flexor tendon, EXCEPT:

When you ask the patient to make a fist, they are only able to flex the 4th and 5th digits. What is this called?

Your patient is able to perform 5 heel raises during the ankle PF MMT. What grade would you give her?

You can get information for the muscle length of all of the following muscles using the Thomas test EXCEPT:

When performing an MMT of supinator, what should the patient position be in order to shorten the bicep muscle?

How many degrees of abduction would the pt’s arm be in to test the muscle length of the clavicular fibers of the pec major muscle?

You suspect that your patient has plantar fasciopathy. All of the following are typical clinical findings for this diagnosis EXCEPT:

What structures are included in the unhappy triad?

Which of the following muscles insert into the medial epicondyle via the common flexor tendon?

All of the following create the borders of the triangular space EXCEPT:

Which shoulder motion will be MOST restricted in a patient with adhesive capsulitis?

You suspect that your patient has C5 cervical radiculopathy. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in the examination?

Which of the following are NOT included in the 8 clinical signs of lumbar instability?

You want to perform the Ober’s test on your patient during the evaluation. What do you do FIRST?

You suspect that your patient may have biceps tendinopathy. Which special test would help you to confirm this diagnosis?

As you analyze your patient’s posture, you notice that they “hang on their Y ligaments”, which mean that instead of activating their muscles, they lean into their:

During the evaluation, your patient reports pain in her shoulder with abduction. She also is unable to abduct it beyond 90 degrees. Which nerve is MOST LIKELY involved?

Your patient has pain when he nods his head to say “yes” but no pain when shaking his head to say “no”. Which joint is MOST LIKELY the culprit behind his pain?

All of the following ligaments are taut with knee flexion and slackened with knee extension EXCEPT:

Because of their toeing in gait, you want to strengthen your patient’s hip external rotators. All of the following muscles assist in hip ER EXCEPT:

Which of the following ligaments provides stability against varus forces on that joint?

The glenohumeral joint and scapulothoracic “joint” have to work together in order to achieve full shoulder ROM. This relationship is typically called the scapulohumeral rhythm, which means that the ratio of movement of GH joint:scapulothoracic joint is:

High velocity joint thrusts are contraindicated in all of the following patients with any of the following EXCEPT:

You want to create a program with an extension bias in all of the following diagnosis EXCEPT:

Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of lumbar instability?

What is the correct arthrokinematics of RIGHT rotation at T8/T9 joint?

If your patient has glute med tendinopathy, which of the following tests would be positive?

All of the following muscles play a role in elevating the mandible for biting EXCEPT:

Your patient is a waiter and reports difficulty with activities like pouring water into a cup, spreading butter on toast, and holding up a plate in her hand. Which nerve may be affected?

You have your patient perform sit to stands to improve her LE strength. When she stands up, what occurs at the knee due to the screw home mechanism?

When assessing your patient's passive lumbar motion, you notice that your patient has limited R lumbar rotation. What occurs arthrokinematically during this motion?

You suspect that your patient has a SLAP lesion. Which of the following tests do you expect to be positive?

You have your patient stand with shoulders externally rotated with elbows flexed to 90 degrees while in 90 degrees of abduction. You instruct them to open and close their hands slowly and report any reproduction of symptoms. If this test was positive, what diagnosis would you suspect?

Your patient reports pain in the lateral ankle after he tripped over a curb. You perform the anterior drawer test and talar tilt test, and both were positive. Which ligament(s) do you suspect to be injured?

When performing the SLR neural tension test, you also bring the ankle into dorsiflexion and inversion. These additional motions help to bias which nerve?

Which of the following would result from a rupture of the extensor tendon at its insertion?

Your patient had a recent total hip replacement with the posterior approach. Which exercise could you include in your treatment session?

During the examination, your patient reports pain over the supinator muscle and paresthesia on the dorsal aspect of the first 3 digits. Which nerve is most likely affected?

You perform the prone instability test on your patient, and the test is negative. What does this indicate?

Which of the following has the characteristic "dinner fork" deformity - posterior displacement of distal radius?

When performing the vertebral artery test, you make sure to ask about the signs and symptoms of vertebral-basilar artery dysfunction. These include all of the following EXCEPT:

Your patient is a 50 y/o female who c/o diffuse shoulder pain in her L arm (she is R side dominant). She reports that there was no traumatic incident that caused the pain, and her symptoms have gotten worse the past few weeks. What is the MOST likely diagnosis based on this information?

When performing the Bunnel-Littler Test, you find that your patient's PIP flexion is limited in both test positions. What does this mean?

Your patient has pain and hypomobility with an upglide of C3 on C4. Which grade of joint oscillations should you use to help treat this?

You want to improve your patient's wrist extension by performing joint mobilizations. What glide would help with this motion?

All of the following are restrictive pulmonary disorders EXCEPT:

You want to help your patient with her excessive pulmonary secretions. You can perform all of the following interventions for this EXCEPT:

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for inpatient and outpatient cardiac rehabilitation?

During cardiac rehab, you want to monitor the patient's appearance, signs, and symptoms of excessive effort and exertional intolerance. All of the following are things to examine for EXCEPT:

After calculating your patient's ABI value, you determine that it is 0.45. This indicates:

You believe that your patient has intermittent claudication in her lower extremities and experiences intense cramping and pain, which typically occurs in the:

As you read your patient's ECG strip, you notice that there are no P waves with wide QRS waves followed by a long pause. This indicates:

When auscultating your patient, you hear bruits, which are:

All of the following are possible effects of physical training/cardiac rehab EXCEPT:

Which of the following is FALSE about the S1 heart sound?

Which is characteristic of hyperglycemia and is not present in patients with hypoglycemia?

Headaches and coma are possible signs and symptoms of:

You want to perform postural drainage on your patient. You have the patient lie supine on the table, body turned 45 degrees to the left, right side raised off the table by pillows, and the foot of the bed raised 12 in. Which lung lobe are you trying to target?

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic bronchitis?

Which of the following can be caused by COPD, blebs, or bullae?

Vital capacity is the sum of what volumes?

Which is not a general characteristic of restrictive lung disorders?

Which of the following is a manifestation of left sided heart failure?

What happens to the mean arterial pressure when heart rate increases?

You are performing auscultation on your patient. Erb’s point is located at the:

Tracheal deviation, acute dyspnea, absent or diminished breath sounds, and hypoxemia are all signs and symptoms of what diagnosis?

You suspect your patient is suffering from deep vein thrombosis. All of the following are clinical manifestations of DVT EXCEPT:

All of the following are main triggers for angina EXCEPT:

Pursed-lip breathing is used to do all of the following EXCEPT:

You plan to perform postural drainage on your patient. You position him into sidelying with the foot of the bed at a 20 inch incline. This position is optimal for draining the:

During the examination, the results indicate that your COPD patient’s FEV1 is 60%. According to the GOLD classification, your patient is at:

The amount of air that resides in the lungs after a normal resting tidal exhalation is:

You notice that your patient is using her accessory muscles during inspiration. Which primary inspiratory muscle do you want to focus on training during her treatment?

Which of the following is a risk factor for chronic venous insufficiency?

The Wells Criteria is used to detect the presence of a DVT. All of the following are included on this criteria EXCEPT:

All of the following are common characteristics of R-sided heart failure EXCEPT:

Which of the following are non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

All of the following are used to indicate abnormalities in a patient’s vascularity EXCEPT:

While you are assisting your patient in transitioning from supine to standing, he reports that he feels lightheaded and his legs feel weak. You then notice that his blood pressure has dropped, indicating that he is experiencing:

You notice that your patient’s recent ECG shows an acute ST elevation. This indicates that your patient had:

As you auscultate at your patient’s 4th L intercostal space at the sternal border, you are listening to the:

When taking your patient’s radial pulse, you determine that it is diminished and barely perceptible. This means that you should grade it as a:

During physical therapy, you have your patient do a high intensity exercise for 5 minutes. You would expect all of the following EXCEPT:

The amount of blood ejected with each myocardial contraction is:

Your patient is on a bike and you double the resistance after 5 minutes. Which of the following would be a normal physiological change?

Which part of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pulmonary veins?

When performing a cardiovascular exam, you observe the skin for possible signs of decreased cardiac output and low oxygen saturation. These signs include all of the following EXCEPT:

Your patient has congestive heart failure. While auscultating her, which heart sound do you expect to hear SPECIFICALLY because of her diagnosis?

On your patient's ECG, you notice that there are 5 PVCs in a row. This indicates:

You're about to treat a new patient for LE pain, but then you suspect that he has DVT. You complete the Wells Criteria for him, and his score ended up to be 3. What should you do next?

Your patient has coronary artery disease, so you want to perform the submaximal Exercise Tolerance Test (ETT) on them. You would stop this test when the patient:

In regards to pulmonary rehabilitation, you can use percussion to address all of the following EXCEPT:

You want to teach your patient a breathing technique to help with shortness of breath. Because this patient also has COPD, which technique would be the most effective for them?

For patients with a restrictive pulmonary disease, which pulmonary function value would you expect to be normal?

When exercising at a high altitude, which of the following will stay the same initially?

You want to incorporate the D2 PNF pattern into your patient's treatment today. What other motions are included in D2 flexion?

Your spinal cord injury patient has little to no motor function with a lack of proprioception in her R LE. In addition, she doesn't experience pain or temperature in her L LE. What kind of SCI syndrome does she have?

The Rinne Test is utilized to identify:

Which of the following is an example of secondary brain damage related to a traumatic brain injury?

The postcentral gyrus is located in the:

Constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) is indicated for your patient. To do this, you put a:

What type of inhibition is used in an agonist contract PNF stretch?

Which is a prerequisite for a SCI patient to be able to perform supine to sitting?

Your patient sustained a C6 complete SCI. While instructing her in a sitting balance intervention, you want to educate the patient on all of the following EXCEPT:

All of the following are signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, EXCEPT:

All of the following are rehab strategies for a TBI patient with Rancho Los Amigos Level IV EXCEPT:

All of the following are clinical findings related to Guillain-Barre Syndrome, EXCEPT:

A group of disorders that affects the brain and present as symptoms that mostly affect memory and language in older adults is known as:

Which subtype of Multiple Sclerosis is described as a steady and irreversible decline with or without acute attacks?

What is the most common cause of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

You are analyzing the gait of your patient with Parkinson’s Disease. You notice all of the following EXCEPT:

With habituation training for vestibular rehabilitation, what do you want to ensure?

In the medical chart, you see that your patient suffered from a spinal cord injury and is classified as Grade B on the ASIA Impairment Scale. This means:

Autonomic dysreflexia can occur with spinal cord lesions above T6. An issue with which item can potentially cause this medical emergency?

Which of the following statements is FALSE about transient ischemic attacks?

Locked-in syndrome describes a condition where the patient cannot move or speak. Vertical eye movements and blinking are the only actions that are intact and are the only options for communication. This syndrome is caused by an occlusion to the:

After grading your patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale, you determine that she has suffered a moderate TBI. This is because her GCS score is:

When treating a patient with a TBI who is within LOCF I-III, which of the following is the LEAST important for this type of patient:

When doing a general sensation test on your patient, his results show no feeling of crude touch or pressure on his distal UEs. This indicates that there may be an issue with the:

Your patient is 2 wks post-op TKA and reports sharp pain with any material touching her incision site, like long pants, blankets, and towels. This common sensory impairment is an example of:

Your patient has difficulty walking for prolonged periods of time. Which outcome measure will determine your patient’s level of endurance?

Your stroke patient demonstrates flexion synergy when performing any UE action. You expect to see all of these motions EXCEPT:

You’re examining your patient using the Modified Ashworth Scale and determine that she demonstrates a Grade 3, which means:

Which of the following is the gold standard drug for Parkinson’s Disease?

Your patient presents with horizontal canalithiasis. Which treatment would be the most appropriate for this diagnosis?

Your patient's taste has been affected after damage to his cranial nerves. Taste, one of the special senses, is innervated by:

Receptive aphasia can occur due to a lesion in which lobe?

You notice that your patient exhibits exaggerated balance reactions and steps forward with small perturbations. Which is the BEST exercise to promote the appropriate balance reaction for small perturbations?

You want to determine which type of sensory information is dominant and which is impaired for your patient, who frequently experiences loss of balance on even and uneven surfaces. Which test would you conduct for this?

All of the following are signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia EXCEPT:

Your new patient recently sustained a C7 spinal cord injury. She does not have motor function below C7, but her sensation is preserved. Some sensation is also preserved in S4-5. What grade would you give her according to the ASIA impairment scale?

Which type of imaging is more effective at diagnosing acute strokes?

Your patient recently sustained a pontine lesion. Which of the following cranial nerves may be affected?

Your patient recently sustained a pontine lesion. Which of the following cranial nerves may be affected?

All of the following are characteristics associated with Horner's syndrome EXCEPT:

You are performing an abdominal examination on your patient, and he reports tenderness to palpation in the R lower quadrant. Which of the following is a possible source of his pain?

Which dressing should be used for wounds with large amounts of exudate?

Which debridement method would be best to use for excising wounds with moist necrotic tissue?

How can you distinguish between lymphedema and lipidema?

Which is a herniation of the small intestine into the deep inguinal ring and out the superficial inguinal ring?

Which of the following is characteristic of hypoglycemia?

When examining your patient’s ulcer on his distal lower leg, you notice that it is deep with no granulation. If the pedal pulses are absent and there is pain with LE elevation, this ulcer is MOST LIKELY a(n):

All of the following are age-related changes EXCEPT:

Your patient has burns on both arms and back. Based on the Rule of Nines, what is the percentage when estimating the burn area?

Cushing’s syndrome is a metabolic disorder resulting from excessive production of cortisol. Signs and symptoms would include all of the following EXCEPT:

Your patient has Grave's Disease, which is a type of:

During your evaluation, your patient reports that she has diabetes and has peripheral neuropathy. As a result, you want to check if she has any diabetic ulcers. Where do they usually appear?

All of the following are common locations for arterial ulcers EXCEPT?

Lymphedema that is spontaneously reversible is what stage?

All of the following are indicative of appendicitis EXCEPT:

Even as physical therapists, it is important to be knowledgeable about adverse side effects to the cancer treatment as it will affect how you plan and conduct your interventions. Your patient may experience any of the following EXCEPT:

When examining your patient's heels, you notice a pressure ulcer on the R heel. The wound looks like it could be a deep crater but is covered in eschar. What stage should you label this ulcer as?

Your patient reports that he experiences a sudden release of urine when coughing or laughing. Which of the following can cause this type of incontinence?

Your low back pain patient also has hypothyroidism. What symptom of hypothyroidism should you watch out for during the treatment session?

Your patient has a 10 day old wound. What should be happening at this time if it is a healthy wound?

In order to prevent SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome), the Academy of Pediatrics recommends that babies should sleep in:

Your pediatric patient presents with abnormal postures and movements with patterns of flexion and extension. There is also an imbalance of tone throughout the body with increased tone in antigravity muscles. He presents most like those with:

Your pediatric patient has progressive muscle weakness with gower’s sign and pseudohypertrophy in his calves. These are all characteristics of what diagnosis:

A child with Down Syndrome typically display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

Which of the following describes a child with a sensory processing disorder with hypersensitivity?

Premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome have a high chance of getting ____ due to dependency on mechanical ventilation.

You’re measuring the heart rate for your 8 y/o patient. If it is normal, you expect it to be:

The GMFCS (gross motor function classification system) was specifically designed to describe kids with:

Which of the following pediatric milestones would you expect to develop the earliest?

Your 3 y/o patient demonstrates a gross motor delay and presents with motor skills that match an 18 month old child. Which actions would you NOT expect your patient to be able to perform?

What is the gold standard intervention for hip dysplasia in pediatric patients?

You notice that your pediatric patient has clubfeet, or talipes equinovarus. What motions make up this abnormality?

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy?

Your patient is a 4 year old girl with Down Syndrome. During the evaluation, what impairment would you expect to find?

A baby in the NICU who has respiratory distress syndrome may develop ____ with prolonged mechanical ventilation.

Your patient is a 5 y/o female who has cerebral palsy. She is only able to walk with her gait trainer, but she has the most difficulty walking outdoors and in the community. What GMFCS level would you classify her?

You position your 24 month old patient into quadruped, but she starts to flex her head, causing her legs to push into full extension with her arms flexed under her. What reflex has not yet integrated?

Erb's paralysis is a brachial plexus injury affecting C5-6 and can be caused during the birth process. In a child with Erb's palsy, all of the following muscles would be affected EXCEPT:

All of the following can help to diagnose congenital hip dysplasia EXCEPT:

Your new patient has spina bifida. During the eval, which clinical manifestation would you NOT expect to see?

All of the following are physiological changes as a result of muscle strength training EXCEPT:

How much force should be used in order to facilitate joint distraction when utilizing mechanical cervical traction?

Before you give your patient an ice massage, you educate her on the sequence of physiological responses that she should expect, which is:

Your patient has significant muscle spasms in bilateral upper trapezius. You chose to use NMES as part of their treatment. What is the best on/off ratio to utilize?